circuitfarmer

This reads like a crazy person manifesto

I’m not sure that’s actually true. I’m not a lawyer but I suspect it would take more than an internet comment saying “I did it.”

I guess I’ll wait for it on a platform with a Linux client, then.

Also, the elephant in the remains in the room: discussing piracy is not piracy.

Maybe this is overly simplistic, but I’m a couch gamer, and text based games on the TV with a wireless keyboard work great. Relax on the couch and otherwise it’s just like you’re physically at the terminal.

I know few people have a PC on the living room TV, but there are ways to stream it over there – e.g. with a Steam Link.

Good bot

One thing to keep in mind that may be relevant: copies of non-digital things are different than digital copies.

Digital (meant here as bit-for-bit) copies are effectively impossible with analog media. If I copy a book (the whole book, its layout, etc., and not just the linguistic content), it will ultimately look like a copy, and each successive copy from that copy will look worse. This is of course true with forms of tape media and a lot of others. But it isn’t true of digital media, where I could share a bit-for-bit copy of data that is absolutely identical to the original.

If it sounds like an infinite money glitch on the digital side, that’s because it is. The only catch is that people have to own equipment to interpret the bits. Realistically, any form of digital media is just a record of how to set the bits on their own hardware.

Crucially: if people could resell those perfect digital copies, then there would be no market for the company which created it originally. It all comes down to the fact that companies no longer have to worry about generational differences between copies, and as a result, they’re already using this “infinite money glitch” and just paying for distribution. That market goes away if people can resell digital copies, because they can also just make new copies on their own.

Super impressive since English is only 1,500 years old…

I’m guessing you mean “Old English” since it’s sometimes said to be that old, but realistically that version of English has very little in common with English now (it was verb-second, for example, like German still is today). Even the post-Danelaw version of a couple hundred years later (with Norse borrowings like “husband” and even the pronouns “they/them”) resembles modern English a lot more. Middle English was largely due to the influx of Norman French (both morphological and syntactic changes), and the whole thing isn’t really recognizable as quasi Modern English until around 1500-1600.

Point is: language is a continuum, and a lot of these oldest this/oldest that claims in language just have to do with where someone is arbitrarily drawing a line.

Modern German for lox is “Lachs” (same pronunciation really, and spelling ultimately doesn’t matter in linguistics). This makes sense, because the English of 1500 years ago would have been relatively close to German varieties of the period. But doesn’t that mean “lox/Lachs/however you want to spell it” goes back further than that, perhaps to some earlier parent of both English and German? Yes, it likely does.

Edit: and yes, as others have said, that means lox is not a borrowing (vs. e.g. “husband”). Lox existed before anyone was calling English English. But that’s also true of e.g. pronoun “he” and a lot of other stuff: by definition, any word that is reconstructed in Proto-Germanic and still exists in English today is “the oldest” (but there will be many of them and they’re all roughly considered to be the same age, since proto-languages are ultimately abstractions with no exact dating).