• 0 Posts
  • 221 Comments
Joined 3 years ago
cake
Cake day: August 22nd, 2023

help-circle













  • Well, I’m not sure where you’re from - and considering that this is an English idiom then it’s just as likely that other languages are more accurate.

    I will admit that the dive into history was fun, I wouldn’t have done it if I wasn’t motivated by that at least. This entire conversation actually elucidated the point I was making quite well, in that human memory is a fickle thing and history can become muddied as a result. History is written by the victor and other phrases come to mind.

    I do wish you and your story well, but I would ask that you consider something for me. Etymology and the progression of language may not seem immediately valuable to you or the story you’re writing, but now you have greater insight into the workings of human communication. The layperson didn’t care that the fiddle wasn’t invented, by the time the phrase was coined it perfectly captured the idea behind the rumor that spread during Nero’s time and what was carried through history. If I’m not mistaken he wasn’t even rumored to have been playing any instrument, he was rumored to have been singing.

    All the best, I hope you continue writing and reading.



  • The term “fiddling/fiddled” implies there is a fiddle involved. My problem with the statement is that there couldn’t be a fiddle involved.

    This just isn’t how language works. You can dispute the idiom all you want, that doesn’t make you right; ‘Nero fiddled while Rome burned’ is a well known saying.

    What you’re saying is like trying to say that Julius Caesar wasn’t assassinated because the term wasn’t coined in English until Shakespeare. No one agrees with that, just so we’re clear.





  • No you absolutely weren’t right, you tried to correct my statement (paraphrasing) of ‘We know Nero wasn’t fiddling’ with ‘Actually we know Nero wasn’t fiddling because fiddles weren’t invented’. You literally proved my statement while trying to say I was wrong.

    Not to mention, the link you provided indeed states that evidence points to their existence in 3000 BC - in ancient Mesopotamia. Their earliest known existence. From which spread to Egypt and Greece, specifically Greece in the form of the pandura. The only thing I’m technically wrong about here is assuming ancient Greece isn’t a part of Europe, because the Greeks themselves didn’t identify as European. They actually invented the term.

    You need to actually read. I’m not interested in continuing to give you history lessons.